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This may be a bit of an advanced RE question, and I think I understand the basics of it, but I was just hoping that someone on here could explain it to me...
I've been doing a little research on some of the big players / investors in my area, and one of the things I've noticed that a couple of them are doing is assigning their leases / rents to the banks in exchange for, what appears to be, a loan or line of credit.
For example, they may assign the rents of 4 SFH's (with an average retail price of $80,000, if that makes any difference) for a loan of $250,000.
I've even seen the rents assigned on a single SFH (worth $150,000), in exchange for a loan of $1M!
Is this typical, that an investor can use their rents / leases as collateral for such a large loan? It seems disproportionate to me. But if so, what are the requirements to receive such a loan, in general? Does the bank typically have to have a certain amount of cashflow / percentage of equity in the property?
Can you explain how this typically works?
Thanks in advance.
I've been doing a little research on some of the big players / investors in my area, and one of the things I've noticed that a couple of them are doing is assigning their leases / rents to the banks in exchange for, what appears to be, a loan or line of credit.
For example, they may assign the rents of 4 SFH's (with an average retail price of $80,000, if that makes any difference) for a loan of $250,000.
I've even seen the rents assigned on a single SFH (worth $150,000), in exchange for a loan of $1M!
Is this typical, that an investor can use their rents / leases as collateral for such a large loan? It seems disproportionate to me. But if so, what are the requirements to receive such a loan, in general? Does the bank typically have to have a certain amount of cashflow / percentage of equity in the property?
Can you explain how this typically works?
Thanks in advance.
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